Criminology Computer Crime Issues - Assignment Example

CRIMINOLOGY Multiple choice Question Answers Computer crime Q&A exams three (3 Which crime scene is the most complex to investigate? C. Network crime scene 2. Which network architecture is most closely associated with network crime scenes? C. the internet 3. Which of these is an IP Address? C. 192.168.0.5 4. The best source for technical information needed in a network investigation is: D. the system administrator for the system in question. 5. Minimization: Ensures that we do not do more harm than good to the victim, ensures we do not scare future victims with heavy-handed seizures and it means reducing the amount of intrusion to the target system. 6. Which method of seizure is not consistent with minimization? B. seizing the computer system 7. New technical experts are always in demand because B. expertise become obsolete quickly 8. The A. ease of concealing data adds to the complexity of finding data, which may lead to criminal prosecution of cyber crimes. 9. The term USB stands for: B. Universal Series Bus 10. Which of the following is among the first things cyber forensic investigators do when investigating a crime scene? B. Leave all the equipment on 11. Which federal agency houses CCIPS? B. DOJ 12. Which federal agency is known as the nation is pre-eminent “cryptological organization”? A. NSA 13. Which federal agency collaborates with the Computer Incident Advisory Capability (CIAC)? D. DOE 14. Which federal agency is primarily responsible for protecting consumers against computer generated commercial fraud? B. FTC 15. Which federal agency houses the Customs Cyber Smuggling Center (3C)? A. ICE 16. According to a recent survey, what percentage of local police agencies has experienced a “measurable increase” in the reporting of computer and electronic crimes? D. 80 17. What factors have limited the ability of local law enforcement agencies to respond to the growing threat of computer crime? Lack of training, lack of diagnostic equipment and lack of specialized personnel. 18. In order to obtain a search warrant, a law enforcement officer must show probable cause by reasonably establishing three issues. Which of the following is NOT one of them? B. The item to be seized is contraband. 19. Which of the following is one of the exceptions to the general rule that searches must be conducted pursuant to a warrant? Stop and frisk, exigent circumstances and search incident to arrest. 20. In order to seize an item in plain view, an officer must: see the item, immediately recognize that the item is subject to seizure, and be legally present in the area from which the item is viewed. 21. Which of the following is an exception contained in Title III? C. the computer trespasser exception 22. The Electronic Communications Privacy Act creates two categories of computer service the two categories are: A. Electronic Communication Service and Remote Computing Service 23. When admitting digital evidence at trial, the issue of A. authenticity comes up when the evidence involves computer-generated records. 24. In C. Katz v. United States, the U.S. Supreme Court ruled that the 4th Amendment protects persons evidencing an expectation of privacy. However, society must be willing to recognize that expectation as reasonable. 25. In A. Florida v. Riley, the court allowed the use of aerial surveillance of arguably “private” spaces. Q&A exams three (4s) 1. What principle should guide the analysis of storage devices? Protect the original evidence, be able to explain every action you take and be aware of the limits of your ability to search legally. 2. Why should the analyst wipe the analysis drive? A. To prove to the court that there could not have been contamination from another drive 3. What two forces have guided the recent development of hard drives? A. Density and speed 4. Why don’t we use the evidence drive for analysis? A. We could, but we would risk losing the original to which we compare copies. 5. When files are deleted from a hard drive: B. the entry in the file allocation table is marked as empty and the files are ignored on the hard drive. 6. An image of a hard drive: A. contains all of the data from the drive, including slack space and unallocated clusters. 7. File systems provide programs and users with the ability to: C. store and retrieve data 8. Which of the following statements is true of storage media? Storage media come in a variety of sizes, shapes, and capacities, direct access media (e.g. disks) are faster than sequential access media (e.g. tape) and the speed of backup media often provides a clue as to the use of the media. 9. Forensics packages must: C. acquire, authenticate, and analyze data. 10. Why can’t we point to a hard disk and say where exactly the data came from? It is written in tracks that are microscopic in size, we can’t say where the data is physically without completely mapping logical structure to physical surface and cylinders place data on multiple disks so there is no one place. 11. Which of the following basic steps in risk analysis should be performed first? A. assessment and evaluation 12. Which of the following basic steps in risk analysis should be performed second? B. Identify threats 13. Which of the following basic steps in risk analysis should be performed last? C. Determine cost-effective strategy 14. This type of security technology is a device or software that acts as a checkpoint between the network and individual users. B. Firewalls 15. This type of security technology works to “scramble” computer messages and/or data. C. Encryption 16. This type of security technology can involve biometrics. D. Passwords 17. Which of the following is true? C. The number of reported cyber crimes is likely to increase substantially. 18. The largest computer crime problem affecting local law enforcement with the largest number of victims is: B. Internet fraud 19. Virtual crimes against persons such as stalking and harassment are facilitated by: D. the anonymity and distance offered by the Internet. 20. The facets of the hacker culture are likely to: A. increase the odds that some groups will become organized criminal enterprises. 21. Which of the following is true regarding current organized crime groups? C. The entrepreneurial groups will increasingly adopt technology as a criminal instrument 22. Terrorist groups will likely use computers and networks for all of the following except: B. Intricate record keeping. 23. In the future, terrorists will likely use all of the following tactics, except: D. attacking personal computers to instill fear. 24. Law enforcement is currently: B. in need of greater training to keep up with the rapid changes in computer technology. 25. NIBRS is: D. none of the above Police Administration class Q&A exams three (1) 1. Which of the following is a criticism of the human relations approach? D. Under emphasizes the importance of democratic management 2. The person usually given credit as the leader of the scientific management approach to organizations is: A. Fredrick Taylor 3. The modern day duty manual outlining the police officer’s duties and responsibilities was originally adapted from: A. 1844 operational manual of the New York City Police 4. Which of the following is not a principle of the scientific management approach? c. Narrow span of control 5. During the scientific management period, a. O.W. Wilson, who was a police chief, encouraged the principles of a professional police department divorced from politics with a rigorous selection and training process. 6. Which of the following is not a basic administrative process identified by O.W. Wilson? C. Activating 7. O.W. Wilson stated, “Wisely conceived c. plans are the keystones of administration; without them the entire venture may fail.” The word that best completes the statement is: 8. Which chief started a selection program whereby police recruits were required to have I.Q. scores of 110 or above and pass a thorough psychiatric testing? A. Wilson at Chicago 9. The one management model which tends to dominate the full service department is very often: b. participatory 10. The behavioral systems approach includes which one of the following? A. organizational development 11. Which of the following is not an important characteristic of an occupational subculture? D. comparable salary culture 12. A Rabbi in police argot is: c. a highly placed official who helps a line officer’s career. 13. Academic studies on police subculture show: d. police officers act like any other citizen. 14. Which of the following is not characteristic of police as a subculture? B. strong sense of disunity 15. Which one of the following is considered a “classic” on police culture? c. O.W. Wilson, The Onion Field 16. Which of the following is not considered an important issue for black police officers? d. Lack of opportunities for promotion to higher administrative ranks 17. Which of the following is not an important issue for female police officers? a. A sense of exclusion from female officer’s social activities 18. In what way do African-American police officers and female police officers differ in the way they work in police organizations? d. Black police officers organize in effective political groups, while female officers do not. 19. What are the three major cultural norms for police as a vocational subculture? d. Argot, secrecy, solidarity 20. Which one of the following is a major reason for the successful integration of gay and lesbian police officers into the department? d. Special training providing appropriate rules of conduct 21. According to a police manager study in the text, the most important skill for the police executive is: d. motivating personnel 22. Rather than “no experience needed,” the advertisement for a proactive police chief should state: a. chief should be able to demonstrate the human relations and conceptual skills necessary to further the police mission. 23. According to the text, a talented police leader should have all but which one of the following: d. be able to project a total grasp of charismatic authority. 24. Chief Murphy is a rather dull person with a good grasp of organizational and human relations skills. Chief Murphy’s authority is mainly based upon: d. None of the above. 25. The idea that all members of an organization are leaders and must make decisions for which they will be held accountable is a main theme for: c dispersed leadership. Q&A exams three (2) 1. A line function that deals with offenses and problems caused by persons under the age of 18 (16 and 17 in some jurisdictions) is: b. juvenile 2. A line function that deals with follow-up on crimes and the preparation of cases for court is: a. investigation 3. The model drawn from management theory that best describes the major functions of any organization and how these functions are carried out is: c. POSDCORB. 4. In an attempt to match the employee with the job, which one of the following is not an appropriate justification? D. gratitude 5. The most vital link in the administrative personnel chain is: d. captain. 6. In which of the following size police departments will the police supervisor have the most difficulty making the transition from line officer because of past relationships? c. Decentralized police department 7. The acronym that best describes the functions of a supervisor’s approach to management is: c. RESPECT 8. Community relations in a police agency are first and foremost the responsibility of: a. the public relations department. 9. Supervisors, as the first line of management that is closest to the information source, are vitally needed for what important function? a. Control 10. Which of the following is not considered a line function in a normal full service police department? c. Youth services 11. Delegated functions that support management functions in the police agency are usually referred to as: a. line functions 12. The police supervisors enforce professional standards under which of the headings of RESPECT? b. Planning and implementation 13. The police supervisor’s concern with personnel reaching their highest potential comes under which heading of RESPECT? D. Teaching and directing 14. Which of the following is a non-uniformed follow-up force? b. Investigation/detective 15. Which of the following is a staff/administrative function? C. budget office 16. Which of the following is an auxiliary/service unit? License section, training and transport section 17. RESPECT emphasizes that every police department has to have standards of conduct and morals, which are called: d. code of ethics 18. Which of the following are orders that will affect the total department on an ongoing basis over time? B. SOPs 19. Which of the following are numbered and dated and refer only to personnel matters? A. SOPs 20. Which one of the following is not a principle to use when writing a duty manual? B. The rules should deal with the trivial 21. Orders need to be written in: c. Consistent organized manner 22. The formal communication network between levels of an organization structure is called: a. Operations communication system 23. The Johari window is used as a communication model to: b. monitor how information is passed from the manager to others and then back 24. All of the following are items that must be included in creating an organized directive except: a. the order should be electronically sent to all units and commands within 24 hours 25. The concept of medium refers to: c. the manner by which communication is transmitted Q&A exams three (3) 1. The model for dealing with the community relations’ aspect of the police agency should be the ultimate responsibility of: a. the public relations unit 2. Which of the following functions would normally be considered part of a community relations unit: c. Youth program 3. One of the most popular programs in the area of crime prevention based on the ancient notion of Frank Pledge is: b. Stakeouts 4. The main source of information for a police misconduct assessment would be which of the following? C. A review of prohibited conduct in the departmental manual 5. Some police may tend to make multiple charges in making arrests. The person who will review these charges would be the: b. legal advisor 6. One of the earliest attempts to control police misbehavior and most opposed by police unions was the: b. Internal affairs unit 7. Which complaints against police officers should be investigated? C. All complaints 8. The following are recommendations to diminish line/staff conflicts: d. implementing staff/line interventions 9. All the following apply to the recruitment of a CRO except: d. knowledge of electronic communication formats 10. Internal affairs unit in many departments have received a new name, it is now often called: b. office of audit and Misconduct. 11. Under professional standards, physical, psychological and legal transgression against suspects, prisoners and witnesses is: c. felony 12. Excessive force by police officers needs to be dealt with: a. in a swift and sure manner 13. Recent studies about the use of excessive force by police officers concluded that: c. department policies were revised to include evaluations of complaints and to use victim assisted strategies for complaints 14. The least severe disciplinary action against the police is: d. loss of vacation days 15. The norm of secrecy, which hinders the investigation of corrupt police officers has been called: c. the blue curtain 16. When people use obscenities towards citizens, which allows police to use violence without conscience, it is called: c. turning people into things 17. Police officers, as part of the family, stick together and protect each other. This is called: c. norm of solidarity 18. Police officers perceive the public as the hostile enemy. “Trust a cop but never trust an outsider.” This is called: b. norm of secrecy 19. “Use the violence necessary to complete the mission without other considerations. Be aggressive and win!” This represents the: a. military model 20. In general, the rights of a police officer include all of the following except: b. notice of the nature of the investigation and name of complainant 21. Legislation that deals with sex offenders and thus forms an important role for juvenile units includes all of the following except: c. Amber Wakefield Act 22. General guidelines concerning whether a juvenile should be arrested or counseled include all of the following except: a. juvenile’s demeanor 23. According to the text and Al Seedman, former chief of New York police detectives solve most cases by: c. brilliant deductions 24. Managing criminal investigations includes which one of the following? B. case screening 25. The most successful aspects of MCI adopted by many departments are: a. monitoring the system and case screening Q&A exams three (4) 1. A training curriculum for cyber investigation would include all the following courses except: a. cell phone investigation. 2. Which one of the following is not part of the first line manager’s (supervisor’s) course? A. fire arms training 3. At minimum, a police executive training course should include: c. civil law, penal law, organization theory. 4. A major approach described in the text for the evaluation of recruit personnel was the: b. field officer training program. 5. Which of the following is not a topic in a training program related to blood borne pathogens? C. means of HIV and HBN transmission. 6. The main purpose for having a cultural diversity program is to: d. to introduce other cultures and ways of life to explain why people feel the way they do. 7. Having empathy and understanding of other cultures and ways of life is what kind of training? A. diversity training 8. All of the following topics would most likely appear in a course of terrorism except: a. blood borne pathogens. 9. In Canton v. Harris, the Supreme Court ruled that: c. deliberate indifference can be a cause of action involving the use of force guidelines. 10. A course on CED’s would include all of the following topics except: d. dart removal 11. The most important step in making sure that a plan meets the objectives that it was designed for, but is generally not done, is to: b. have a means of evaluation. 12. The budget which demands an analysis of organizational structure of the police agency and individual units of the agency is known as a: c. line-item budget. 13. The following are examples of supplementing the normal police budget except for: d. raising the line-item budget. 14. A rapid response time of two minutes or less to service calls: c. should be applied to all service calls 15. The major benefit from networking is it: a. saves money. 16. The relationship between policing terrorism and proactive homeland security is: d. terrorism has nothing to do with local police 17. The last stage of terrorism proactive planning is: c. cleaning up the aftermath of the terrorist act. 18. According to proactive police management, the Transnational Crime Organizations and Terrorist groups are: b. never connected. 19. According to Proactive Police Management, American domestic hate groups and terrorist groups are: b. are increasingly connected. 20. In comparing criminal and terrorist groups, police planners must view terrorist groups as those who: b. use criminal operations to commit crimes to further organizational objectives. 21. The most important policy needed for a local police approach to terrorism is: d. sharing information between local, state and national police agencies. 22. In critical infrastructure assessment protection, we are talking about protecting: b. nuclear electric generating plants and bridges. 23. COMPSTAT became an important planning tool when it included: b. identifying problems and developing broad based solutions. 24. The core functions of NIMS canter on the following: b. planning, intelligence, administration, response. 25. All of the following are major areas of police litigation except: c. hiring and promotion. (Kuykendall & Unsinger, 1975) References Kuykendall, J. L., & Unsinger, P. C. (1975). Community police administration. Chicago: Nelson-Hall. Read More