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The Main Difference between Aristotles Account of Virtue and Socrates Account of Virtue - Essay Example

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Aristotle’s philosophy is said to be an intellectual achievement which is extraordinary. His claims and arguments have endured as important landmarks of philosophy. They are also viewed as intellectual endeavors…
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The Main Difference between Aristotles Account of Virtue and Socrates Account of Virtue
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Download file to see previous pages This is because it identifies happiness as an activity of the soul which goes together with virtue. Aristotle argues that if what individuals do is the source of happiness then, happiness must identify with activity which goes with virtue. Socrates argued that being virtuous was very much related with increasing individual’s happiness. The controversy between the two is that according to Aristotle happiness should always go in accordance with virtue. On the same note, according to Socrates virtue does not necessarily need to be highly related with happiness. Aristotle attempts to criticize Socrates for his emphasis on Socratic definitions. Aristotle does not completely agree with the argument by Socrates that knowledge is important in as far as virtue is concerned. He thinks that even if there is need for knowledge it is easily attainable as suggested by Irwin (158). Aristotle also draws the analogy between acquiring knowledge and acquiring virtue. He argues that both are gained through repeating similar actions. Socrates argues that a virtuous soul should also be well ordered. He also argues that power of knowledge of right and the wrong is the advantage of virtue. This is because the knowledge of the two is important to crafts of measurement. ...
He also argues that knowledge of the truth is not very important as one can act accidentally or be directed by someone else. Aristotle explains that virtuous actions are objective and are performed by a virtuous agent. Aristotle is in disagreement with Socrates concerning the nature of vice and ethical value as suggested by Segvic and Burnyeat (78). According to Aristotle for an action to be considered virtuous there must be an agreement with the non-rational desires. The agreement should be for reason to express the actions are supposed to be pursued. Contrary to this, according to Socrates there is no need for prior agreement by non-rational desires concerning the setting of the ends. Therefore Socrates considers that the condition necessary for an agent to attain moral knowledge is through disciplining his or her appetites and passions. The also need to be in a harmonious condition. Aristotle fails to agree with Socrates about non-rational desires lead to errors. Socrates is of the view that strong non-rational desires results to reason making wrong judgment about what is really good. On his account of, virtue Aristotle disagrees with Socrates denying the possibility of incontinence. Socrates argues that only ignorance of what is good and wrong lies behind apparent incontinence. Contrary to this, Aristotle asserts that Socrates argument conflicts appearances he Aristotle’s perception of incontinence seems to be puzzling and their interpretation is therefore controversial. Aristotle seems to argue that incontinent individual makes the right decision. This is because he or she is moved to action by non-rational appetite that conflicts with the decisions he or she has made. The individual acts on the appetite because its strong as opposed ...Download file to see next pagesRead More
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